2
$\begingroup$

Question: Suppose that the risk-free return is equal to the expected return of the global minimum variance portfolio. Show that there is no tangency portfolio.

A hint for the question states: Show there is no $\delta$ and $\lambda$ satisfying

$$\delta\Sigma^{-1}(\mu-R_f\iota)= \lambda\pi_\mu + (1-\lambda)\pi\iota$$

but I'm not sure what to make of it. Any help is appreciated.

$\endgroup$
2
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ It would be helpful to give a definition of the variables you use in your equation. What is $\pi_\mu$ and $\pi$? $\endgroup$ Jun 5, 2015 at 8:26
  • $\begingroup$ also what is $\delta$ and $\lambda$ $\endgroup$
    – develarist
    Oct 30, 2020 at 15:06

2 Answers 2

1
$\begingroup$

Intuitively speaking this statement should be clear, as in case the risk-free rate is equal to the expected return of the global minimum variance portfolio you can just assume that the minimum variance portfolio is just an investment into the risk-free rate. Therefore the intersection between the efficient frontier and the tangent line between $r_f$ and the efficient frontier is at $0$ standard deviation and expected return $r_f$.

$\endgroup$
0
$\begingroup$

Recalling that: \begin{align} \begin{cases} A = \mu'\Sigma^{-1}\mu\\ B = \mu'\Sigma^{-1}\iota\\ C = \iota'\Sigma^{-1}\iota\\ \pi_{gmv} = \frac{1}{C}\Sigma^{-1}\iota\\ \pi_{\mu} = \frac{1}{B}\Sigma^{-1}\mu \end{cases} \end{align} Note that if we pose $R_f = \frac{B}{C}$ . We can assume by way of contradiction that there exists $(\delta, \lambda)$ such that the equation holds,and pre multiply both sides of the equation by $\iota'$. implying $\delta \times 0 = 0 = \lambda \frac{B}{B} + (1- \lambda)\frac{C}{C} = 1$ which is a contradiction.

$\endgroup$
0

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.