I'm attempting to follow an author's steps in an argument and having trouble seeing how Taylor series expansion can be applied to give the stated result. The scenario is as follows.
The mid price of a stock evolves according to: $$ dS_{u} = \sigma dW_{u} $$ with initial value $S_{t}=s$ and $W_{t}$ being a standard one-dimensional Brownian motion with constant $\sigma$.
Assuming an stock inventory of size $q$ and an initial wealth, in dollars, of $x$, and agent's value function is given as: $$ v(x, s, q, t)= \mathbb{E}[-exp(-\gamma(x+qS_{T}))] $$ The author moves to state that this expectation can be written as: $$ v(x, s, q, t)= -exp(-\gamma x)exp(-\gamma qs)exp \left(\frac{\gamma^2q^2\sigma^2(T-t)}{2}\right) $$ I believe that a Taylor series expansion is be applied to get this result but I can't follow how this is the case. Can someone help me understand the steps?
I've tried to follow the method outlined in this Wikipedia entry on Taylor and random variables, but the above doesn't quite 'fit'.