15
$\begingroup$

"The vega is the integral of the gamma profits ( ie expected gamma rebalancing P/L) over the duration of the option at one volatility minus the same integral at a different volatility...Mathematically, it is:

$$\text{Vega} = \sigma t S^2 \text{Gamma}$$

where $S$ is the asset price, $t$ the time left to expiration and $\sigma$ the volatility.

This is again from Dynamic Hedging by Taleb. I cannot understand the first sentence because it gives no indication of which volatilities to pick nor what the integrand of the integral would be.

Shortly after Taleb states the formula above, again no justification as to where it came from.

Please could someone explain this better.

$\endgroup$

2 Answers 2

13
$\begingroup$

Under the Black-Scholes model, \begin{align*} Gamma &= \frac{N'(d_1)}{S \sigma \sqrt{T-t}}\\ Vega &= SN'(d_1) \sqrt{T-t}. \end{align*} Then, it is easy to see that \begin{align*} Vega = S^2 \sigma (T-t) Gamma. \end{align*}

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks. This totally answers the 2nd part of the question. I suspect it inplicitly answers the first part but i cannot see how. Could you explain the integral at the different volatilities bit please? $\endgroup$
    – Trajan
    Commented Mar 16, 2016 at 17:22
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @Permian: For the first part, it is pretty trick. See Peter Carr's "FAQ in option pricing theory", and a longer discussion is in Marc Henrard's "Parameter risk in the Black & Scholes model". $\endgroup$
    – Gordon
    Commented Mar 16, 2016 at 19:34
  • $\begingroup$ I am reading the Henrard's article: could you articulate a bit more why this should exaplain the fact that "vega is the integral of the gamma profits..."? Thank you. $\endgroup$
    – Enrico
    Commented May 30 at 8:53
  • $\begingroup$ I would recommend you to ask this as another question. $\endgroup$
    – Gordon
    Commented May 30 at 17:09
1
$\begingroup$

I believe in its most fundamental form it is best to internalize that the expected gamma rebalancing P/L = Option price at one volatility. Thus the difference of the option prices at different volatilities by this interpretation shall be the vega, or the sensitivity of an options price to a change in implied vol.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.