I want to know the expectation and the variance of the Gamma PnL for different hedging frequencies.
Let's say the return of the underlying follow a normal process: $dr= \sigma*dW$, the market trades 24hours and there is no transaction cost. I consider I have a constant dollar $\Gamma$ position (-r% or +r%, r $\in$ $\mathbb{R}$), provide the same $\Gamma$) with a stripe of options. I also assume, there is no change in implied vol during the day, therefore the vega PnL is zero.
The daily volatility is $s = \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{365}}$ therefore $dr \sim \mathcal{N}(0,s^2)$.
What is the Gamma PnL if we hedge every seconds, hours ... every time period $t$?
If we hedge every time $t$ (to simplify I normalize $t$ to a day, for instance every hour would be $t$ = 1/24), using the properties of Brownian motions, I can consider I have $1/t$ independent return processes $dr_{t} \sim \mathcal{N}(0, s^2*t)$, the Gamma PnL process is then for a day:
$PnL_{\Gamma}= \frac{1}{t}*\Gamma*\frac{dr_{t}^2}{2}$
and then follows $PnL_{\Gamma}\sim \chi^2_{1}$, with mean $E =\Gamma*s^2*t/t = \Gamma*s^2$ and variance $V = \Gamma^2*s^4*t^2/t^2 = \Gamma^2*s^4$
What I do not understand is that there is no dependency of the Gamma PnL to the hedging frequency. As we increase the hedging frequency we should have less variance and less return on the gamma and the reciprocal should be true? Where is my math failing? I do not see it.