Like in the title, I am working on running Monte Carlo simulations to price options with the Local Volatility model as a project. I just want to make sure that I am understanding the process, especially the discretization correctly.
The risk neutral dynamics under the Local Volatility model is:
$$ \frac{d S_t }{S_t } = \mu_t dt + \sigma(t,S_t) dW_t $$
Applying Itô's lemma gives:
$$ d \ln(S_t) = (\mu_t-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2(t,S_t)) dt + \sigma(t,S_t) dW_t $$
Using Euler-Maruyama discretization scheme for simplicity:
\begin{align} \ln(S_{t+\delta t}) &= \ln(S_{t}) + \int_t^{t+\delta t}(\mu_t-\frac{1}{2} \sigma^2(u,S_u)) du + \int_t^{t+\delta t} \sigma(u, S_u) dW_u \\ &\approx \ln(S_{t}) + (\mu_t - \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2(t,S_t)) \delta t + z \sqrt{\sigma^2(t, S_t)\delta t} \tag{1} \end{align}
Then I can incorporate the local volatility model (and the skew/smile) into my simulations by splitting the time interval between 0 and T into smaller intervals and use the volatility given by the local volatility surface and time step, plug these two into (1) (assuming that I can build a smooth LV surface).
I have two questions.
1/ Would it be correct to use the drift rate equal to the risk free rate for pricing options ?
2/ If I want to use Monte Carlo simulations to get an idea on the probability of the underlying asset ending up between an interval after a defined time period, then I would have to use the "expected return" of the underlying asset instead of the risk free rate ?
Thanks!