When computing these factors, according to some sources, $u=e^{r\Delta t+\sigma \sqrt{\Delta t}}$, where $r$ is the risk-free interest rate, $T$ is the time for maturity, and $\sigma$ is the volatility. However, some sources suggest that $u=e^{\sigma \sqrt{\Delta t}}$.
(By thinking about the time value of money, I think the first one is more accurate)
Another discrepancy in the literature concerns computing volatility. I'm not sure whether to use the standard deviation of the logarithmic return or that of the ordinary return. In case it's merely a matter of computational preference, I'm unsure of the effect on the ultimate result.
Can somebody clarify these for me?