Given two methods to calculate the 1 year conditional probability of default of a zero coupon bond, I've come up with slightly different but close results.
From my approaches below, is it reasonable for the results to be off? Is the amount they are off considered large? Am I missing something?
Given:
1 year zero coupon bond with a face value of 1 million trading at 80% of face value. Assuming 0 recovery and a risk free rate of 5%.
1 year conditional (on no prior defaults) probability of default:
Method 1
Obtain the probability of default from a hazard rate (instantaneous conditional probability of default)
$Bond Return = (\frac{Face}{Price})^{1/maturity} -1 = 25\%$
$Spread = 25\% - 5\% = 5\%$
$\lambda = \frac{spread}{1-Recovery} = 20\%$
$\pi_{1 year} = 1 - e^{-\lambda} = 18.13%$
Method 2
Equate the future value of a risky bond with yield (y) and default probability ($\pi$) to a risk free asset with yield ($R_f$)
$1 + R_f = (1-\pi)*(1+R_f+z)+\pi*Recovery$
Where z is the spread.
Given the above (sourced from a GARP FRM practice exam), the result is 16%.