There is a statement in John Hull's book Options, Futures and Other Derivatives 9th
page 633
for the relation between implied volatility function (IVF)
and implied distribution
of asset in future time.
When it is used in practice the IVF model is recalibrated daily to the prices of plain vanilla options. It is a tool to price exotic options consistently with plain vanilla options. As discussed in Chapter 20 plain vanilla options define the risk-neutral probability distribution of the asset price at all future times. It follows that the IVF model gets the risk-neutral probability distribution of the asset price at all future times correct. This means that options providing payoffs at just one time (e.g., all-or-nothing
and asset-or-nothing options) are priced correctly by the IVF model. However, the model does not necessarily get the joint distribution of the asset price at two or more times correct. This means that exotic options such as compound options and barrier options may be priced incorrectly.
I can not understand that, IVF guarantees the model match the market price of vanilla option for all strike $K$ and all maturity $T.$ And the implied distribution
of asset in future time is totally determined by the market price:
$$ p(S^*,t^*;K,T) = e^{r(T - t^*)}\dfrac{\partial^2 V}{\partial K^2}.$$
Here, market value: $V,$ maturity $T,$ strike $K,$ spot price of asset: $S^*,$ current time: $t^*.$
Can anyone give me a clear explanation?