It has been pointed out in the comments (@Hans and @Kermittfrog) that unless you make the strong and fallacious assumption that the IV surface moves in parallel, you'd need to bucket the Black-Scholes vegas by strike and tenor.
My sole addition over the comments is to point out a fairly recent article by Francois and Stentoft in which they propose an in my opinion interesting new definition of vega.
Since in a flat volatility Black-Scholes world vega and gamma are related as follows:
$$
v^{BS}(K,\sigma) = T\sigma S^2 \Gamma^{BS}(K,\sigma),
$$
Francois and Stentoft propose to define vega in the presence of a skew analogously by
$$
v^{SI}(K,I(K)) = T I(K) S^2 \Gamma^{SI}(K,I(K)),
$$
where the subscript SI stands for ``smile implied'', $I(K)$ is the implied volatility corresponding to the strike $K$, and $\Gamma^{SI}(K,I(K))$ is the smile implied gamma which can be deduced/computed from market price $C^{mkt}(K)$ of options:
$$
\Gamma^{SI}(K,I(K)) = \frac{ \partial^2 C^{mkt}}{ \partial S^2} (K).
$$
In stochastic volatility models $\frac{ \partial^2 C^{mkt}}{ \partial S^2} (K)$ can be implied from the skew in a parameter-free manner. For other models, some additional assumptions are required.
Notice, though, that this definition does not circumvent the issue of having to specify how the IVs are correlated to each other across strike and time to maturity in order to arrive at an aggregate dollar vega of the portfolio.
It's clear that it's high time a smart person writes a paper titled "Oi guv, wots me vega?!", as this is obviously an important question without a clear and robust answer thus far.
correlation between your implied vol nodes
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