There exist formulas to convert between normal and lognormal interest rate volatilities. In the most simple form the approximation for ATM volatilities would be $\sigma_{LogNorm}=\frac{\sigma_{Norm}}{\text{|forward rate|}}$. Such conversion makes it possible to calculate $\sigma_{LogNorm}$ also for negative rates, for which the normal volatility exists but the lognormal Black volatility doesn't.
The question is: Could these converted lognormal volatilities be used in a lognormal Libor Market Model (LMM) for modelling negative interest rates? Or is there something fundamentally wrong with such approach?
I believe the correct/standard approach would be to use a shifted lognormal LMM, but I currently only have access to a lognormal BGM model.