From my understanding:
FwdPx= SpotPx - Accruals + Financing
Assume that the yield curve is flat/or that the bond yield stays the same the next day, i.e. that the market is unchanged and that the only force the bond is subject to is the Pull to Par.
Then if it is trading above 100 its price the next day will by slightly lower and the opposite if it is trading below 100. Therefore we in T+1 you actually have a change in price (call it “dP”)
My assumption is that the initial FwdPx (I.e. the FwdPx with the same starting date and end date of the previous day, not shifted by one day), will also have to move by dP + (1day Accrual - 1day Financing), due to the changes in both the spot price and the fact that the “carry” component is one day less. Is this correct?
The original question is to understand what would happen to a Basis position (long CTD, short Future), from T to T+1 if nothing at all happens, or in other words if only the deterministic components of the bond make their effect on the bond, assuming that there is a net basis equal to zero.