I have a question on the following exercise from S. Shreve: Stochastic Calculus for Finance, I:
Exercise 4.2. In Example 4.2.1, we computed the time-zero value of the American put with strike price $5$ to be $1.36$. Consider an agent who borrows $1.36$ at time zero and buys the put. Explain how this agent can generate sufficient funds to pay off his loan (which grows by $25 \%$ each period) by trading in the stock and money markets and optimally exercising the put.
The model from Example 4.2.1 he refers to is the following: \begin{align*} S_0 & = 4 \\ S_1(H) & = 8, S_1(T) = 2 \\ S_2(HH) & = 16, S_2(HT) = S_2(TH) = 4, S_2(TT) = 1 \end{align*} with $r = 1/4$ and risk-neutral probabilities $\hat p = \hat q = 1/2$.
So now my question, I am not sure how to solve this, I guess the agent wants in some way hedge that he can always pay the credit by utilising the option. First how should I think about it, that he should pay back his credit at time step $2$, or earlier if possible by exercising the option, or should he stay liquide until the end? And what means optimal, hedging with minimal invest?
Okay, I solved it by considering two scenarios, first using the option at time step $1$, and then at time step $2$. By using it at time step one I found that he has to invest additional $0.16$, buy $1/2$ from the share, and accordingly borrow $0.16 - 1/2 \cdot 4$ from the bank/monkey market. Then at the first time step, as the option was exercised and the value of the portfolio equals $(1 + r)1.36$ he could just invest everything riskless, i.e. readjusting his portfolio by not buying any shares of stock, and investing in the riskless asset $(1+r)1.36$, in this way at time step $2$ he could pay $(1+r)^2 1.36$.
In the second scenario, i.e. exercising the option at time step $2$, I found that he has to invest additional $1.36$ and buy no share at the initial step, and then readjust in the next step his portfolio as to buy $1/12$ of the share if it goes up and $1.06$ if it goes down, and by exersing the option, if it goes up after paying his debt $(1+r)^2 1.36$ his portfolio has the value $1.3$, meaning he still has money, or $-0.3$ if it goes down, meaning he still has some debt (this point I do not understand fully?...)
So can someone help me in understand and solving this exercise (if my approach is wrong...)?