(source John Hull, Options Futures and Other Derivatives 8th edition)
I can't follow why Hull calculates Credit VaR in the following manner. I thought CVaR was Unexpected Loss$_{confidence}$ - Expected Loss.
Hull calculates the 1 year 99.9% worst case default rate as:
$V(confidence,T) = N(\frac{N^{-1}(PD)+(\sqrt{p}) N^{-1}(confidence)}{\sqrt{p}})$
CVaR = portfolio value * $V(confidence, T)$ * Loss Given Default
(in the given example, he get correlation (P) via a Guassian copula)