I have encountered a statement that in summary reads like this:
Varswaps became popular after the LTCM meltdown due to high levels of implied volatility the market was seeing at the time. Hedge funds took advantage of this by selling the realized variance (i.e. being short varswaps which are a proxies for the quadratic variation of the log-spot process). Dealers wanted to buy vega at these levels because they were structurally short vega.
The vega mentioned here is probably the bucketed vega, i.e. the partial derivative of the portfolio PV with respect to different $\sigma_{imp}(K,T)$.
Questions:
- There is not just one vega (there are as many as $(K,T)$ pairs we use to construct the volatility surface). Does the statement above refer to vega as a whole (i.e. the surface as a whole became more expensive)?
- How can they neutralize vega by buying what is essentially a linear product paying the quadratic variation of the log-spot? Why adding varswap positions can be equated to long vega?