I am currently trying to calculate a volatility by using the EWMA model because it is said to yield better results than just using an equal weighted calculation approach. However I am a bit confused when it comes to using or choosing the lambda term.
According to various sources, in finance (especially risk management) a lambda of 0.94 is very common. Now lets imagine I work with a lookback period of n = 22. Now calculating the weights according to $ (1 - \lambda) (\lambda)^{w_n} $, where $\lambda$ = 0.94 and n is between 0 and 21, I get:
n EWMA weight Equal weight
0 0.06 0.045
1 0.056 0.045
..
21 0.016 0.045
sum 0.74 1
Now taking the sum of the EWMA weights, I get a value of 0.74. Now if I would be using this lambda (and its weights), wouldn't I get a significantly undervalued volatility considering that the sum of my weights is "only" 0.74? Can a lambda of 0.94 only be used with much larger n's, where the weights sum to almost 1?
Thanks in advance