2
$\begingroup$

In continuous-time asset pricing, the price of a defaultable perpetual coupon bond is given by $$P(V) = \frac{c}{r}\left[ 1- \left(\frac{V}{V_b}\right)^{-\gamma}\right] + (1-\alpha)V_b \left(\frac{V}{V_b}\right)^{-\gamma}$$

where $c$ is the coupon rate, $r$ is the interest rate, $V$ is the underlying asset (distributed as a GBM), $V_b$ is the default barrier, and $(1-\alpha)$ is the recovery rate at default.

How do I compute the continuously compounded yield $r^d$ for this asset?

With maturity and no default risk, it is usually defined from the formula $P_t = e^{- r^d(T-t)}$, but as it is a defaultable perpetual bond this formula does not apply.

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

2
$\begingroup$

You could equate the value function with an infinite series of discounted cash flows, discounted at the yield. Assuming a continuous coupon rate and a continuous yield $r^d$:

$$ r^d:P(V) \stackrel{!}{=} c\int_0^{\infty}e^{-r^dt}\mathrm{d}t=\frac{c}{r^d}\Rightarrow r^d=\frac{P(V)}{c} $$

In your equation, if the recovery rate at default $(1-\alpha)$ is zero, you'd arrive at the handy result:

$$ r^d=\frac{P(V)}{c}=\frac{1}{r}\left[1-\left(\frac{V}{V_b}\right)^{-\gamma}\right] $$

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.