thank you in advance anyways! I do have a question that drives me mad.
How do i calculate the Swap DV01 for a Interest Rate Swap?
I think for a bond i multiply the discounted cashflows times the point in time, and divide it through the bond price to end up with duration and thus i can end up with dollar value of 1 bp.
But for a european IRS i do not know.
I think there exists the cash formula, but this suggests a flat interest curve which is not applicable.
KR and thanks everybody!