I am reading Shreve's Stochastic Calculus for Finance II. He states on pages 110 and 111 that,
$$E[exp(\sigma m-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2 \tau_m)] = 1$$ $$E[exp(-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2 \tau_m)] = e^{-\sigma m}$$
I understand that the top equation is a martingale and should thus have a constant expectation but I don't understand why both equations are true. I tried taking the expectations of both equations by taking the integral from 0 to $m$, but that doesn't work since I get
$$ E[exp(-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2 \tau_m)] = \int_0^m exp(-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2 \tau_m) dt = \frac{2-2exp{(-\frac{ms^2}{2}})}{s^2} \color{red} \ne e^{\sigma m}$$
How do I prove in detail both expectations?
Here are the pages for reference.