I am new to Quantitative Finance but have been doing a lot of reading on Counterparty Credit Risk.
I understand the definition of CVA being:
"the difference between the risk-free portfolio value and the true portfolio value that takes into account the possibility of a counterparty’s default."
I understand the Positive and Negative Credit Exposure due to defaulting Counterparties. I mostly understand the CVA Formula being:
$CVA =\int_{0}^{T} \! EE * (t) dPD(0,t)\,\mathrm{d}t.$
My question is, How does one (a firm, a bank...) make money from CVA trades? If all CVA is, is the expected loss of a counterparty defaulting, how is that possible to make money on these trades?
Can someone provide a basic vanilla example of how this is possible. Thanks!