Consider two measures $\mathbb Q^{M}$ and $\mathbb Q^{N}$, as well as the two numéraires $M$ and $N$, furthermore assume that $X\frac{N}{M}$ is a $\mathbb Q^{M}$-martingale. Furthermore, the covariation $X$ and $\frac{M}{N}$ satisfy the following:
$$dX(t)\cdot d\frac{M(t)}{N(t)} = \frac{M(t)}{N(t)}X(t)\gamma(t)dt$$
Finally we assume:
$$ dX(t) = X(t)(\mu(t)dt+\sigma(t)dW(t))\; \; \; \text{under }\mathbb Q^{M},$$
It is then stated that by using Girsanov, it follows
$$ dX(t) = X(t)(\mu(t)+\gamma(t) )dt+\sigma(t)dW(t))\; \; \; \text{under }\mathbb Q^{N} $$
Where does the term $\gamma$ come from when moving from measure $\mathbb Q^{N}$ to $\mathbb Q^{M}$?
My attempt: Since the justification was made by using Girsanov, I have attempted to reconcile this with what I know about Girsanov.
We have in general that $\mathbb E^{\mathbb Q^{N}}[X]= \mathbb E^{\mathbb Q^{M}}[X\frac{M}{N}]$, i.e. $\frac{d\mathbb Q^{N}}{d\mathbb Q^{M}}=\frac{M}{N}$
How can we write $$\frac{M(t)}{N(t)}$$ in exponential form though?
Any ideas on what I am missing?