Given forward rate f(t,T) and bond price P(t,T) where
$f(t,T) = - \frac{\partial}{\partial T} \ln P(t,T)$,
$P(T,T) = 1 = P(t,t)$,
T>0 and
$t \in [0,T]$
Does it follow that $P(t,T) = exp(-\int_{t}^{T} f(t,u) du)$?
My professor gives an argument that suggests it is so, but a different way I tried suggested the instead we have $P(t,T) = \pm exp(-\int_{t}^{T} f(t,u) du)$. Who is right? What is the flaw in the wrong one's reasoning?
My professor's:
$f(t,u) = - \frac{\partial}{\partial u} \ln P(t,u)$
$\int_{t}^{T} f(t,u) du = \int_{t}^{T} - \frac{\partial}{\partial u} \ln P(t,u) du$
$\int_{t}^{T} f(t,u) du = \int_{t}^{T} - \frac{\partial}{\partial u} \ln P(t,u) du$
$- \int_{t}^{T} f(t,u) du = \ln P(t,T) - \ln P(t,t)$
$- \int_{t}^{T} f(t,u) du = \ln P(t,T)$
$e^{- \int_{t}^{T} f(t,u) du} = P(t,T)$
QED
Mine:
$f(t,u) = - \frac{\partial}{\partial u} \ln P(t,u)$
$\int_{t}^{T} f(t,u) du = \int_{t}^{T} - \frac{\partial}{\partial u} \ln P(t,u) du$
$- \int_{t}^{T} f(t,u) du = - \int_{t}^{T} - \frac{\partial}{\partial u} \ln P(t,u) du$
$- \int_{t}^{T} f(t,u) du = \int_{t}^{T} \frac{\partial}{\partial u} \ln P(t,u) du$
$- \int_{t}^{T} f(t,u) du = \int_{t}^{T} \frac{\partial}{\partial u} P(t,u) / P(t,u) du$
Let
$v = P(t,u)$
$dv = \frac{\partial}{\partial u} P(t,u)$
$- \int_{t}^{T} f(t,u) du = \ln |P(t,u)/ P(t,t)|$
$- \int_{t}^{T} f(t,u) du = \ln |P(t,u)|$
$e^{- \int_{t}^{T} f(t,u) du} = |P(t,u)|$
$\pm e^{- \int_{t}^{T} f(t,u) du} = P(t,u)$
QED
P.S. it is assumed we can swap integral and derivative (if even relevant).