I have seen a TRS being valued which has an index as underlying on the asset side. It also has a coupon rate associated with it. Asset leg is calculated by taking
percentage change of asset value from last reset date to valuation date * adjusted notional
The interest accrued is calculated by multiplying
coupon rate * adjusted notional * ((val date-reset date)/360).
The financing leg is calculated by
index on last reset date/100 * LIBOR/100 * ((val date-reset date)/360)
Valuation of TRS is done by subtracting the financing leg from the asset leg if we are long.
Will a coupon rate be always involved in the asset leg? And more importantly why is forward cash flows and discounting not done? Does this methodology of valuation pertain to only this type of TRS?