Following is given,
$dB(t)=rB(t)dt$
$dS(t)= (r-\delta)S(t)dt+\sigma S(t)dW(t)$
where, $r$ is the risk-free interest rate, $\delta$ the continous dividend yield $\sigma$ is the stock asset volatility and $W$ brownian motion.
By solving the SDE that is the money account B and applying Itô's lemma on the stock dynamic S I get,
$B(T)=e^{r(T-t)}$ and
$S(T)=S(t)e^{(r-\delta-\sigma^2/2)+\sigma(W(T)-W(t))}$
I know further that the No Arbitrage price is defined as,
$\Pi(t;X)=1/B(T)*E^Q_t[max[B(T),S(T)]]$
Question
Can I somehow cancel out B(T) since it is deterministic? How do I calculate the expectation of a maximum with a brownian motion W?
I am new to probability theory, financial mathematics and stochastic calculus. Would appreciate step-wise guidance. Thank you!